Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 24.06.2025 02:42
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why do I feel sleepy after massage?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Is the Trump-Zelenskyy meeting a preview of what the US is going to do to Taiwan?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why men with broken heart syndrome are more likely to die, according to experts - East Idaho News
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.